Australia · English test

PTE Academic

PTE Academic is Pearson’s computer-based English test. It takes about 2 hours at a test centre and covers speaking, writing, reading and listening. There’s no pass or fail: you get a score from 10 to 90, and your university or the visa authority decides the score you need. This guide explains which PTE test to take, how it works, what it costs and how scoring works. There’s a free practice test further down.

  • About 2 hoursOne sitting, on computer, at a test centre
  • 3Parts: Speaking and Writing, Reading, Listening
  • 10-90Score range. There’s no pass or fail
  • 2 daysUsual wait for results, up to 5 business days

Key facts

At a glance

Versions
PTE Academic for Australia, NZ and universities. PTE Academic UKVI for UK visas. PTE Core for Canadian immigration
Score
10 to 90 overall and for each skill. There’s no pass mark
Results
Usually within 2 business days, sometimes up to 5
Fee
Set by location. Australian centres listed AU$475 to AU$490 in October 2026
Retakes
Once you have your last results, up to 12 times in 12 months

How it works

One 2-hour computer test in three parts, scored from 10 to 90

  1. PTE Academic is one computer-based test of about 2 hours. You take it at a Pearson test centre. You can’t take it at home.
  2. Part 1 is Speaking and Writing (about 76 to 84 minutes). You speak into a headset microphone and type your written answers. It starts with an unscored personal introduction.
  3. Part 2 is Reading (about 23 to 30 minutes), with five question types such as multiple choice, fill in the blanks and reorder paragraph.
  4. Part 3 is Listening (about 31 to 39 minutes), with eight question types, including Write from Dictation.
  5. Pearson says you’ll answer 65 to 75 questions across 22 question types. Some questions test two skills at once and count towards both.
  6. Everything is scored by AI. Human experts also review the content of some speaking and writing tasks.
  7. You get an overall score from 10 to 90 and a score for listening, reading, speaking and writing. The university or visa authority sets the score you need.

Topics

What’s on the test

01

Multiple choice, single answer

Read a short text and pick the one option that matches it. These questions test whether you understand meaning, not just words.

Key points (4)
  • In Reading, Multiple Choice, Single Answer texts are up to 110 words, and there are about 2 to 3 of these questions.
  • Each one is scored correct or incorrect: 1 point or 0.
  • There’s also a Listening version, where you answer about a short recording.
  • Wrong options often use words from the text but change their meaning.
02

Multiple choice, multiple answers

Choose every option the text supports. Here, wrong guesses cost you points, so care matters more than speed.

Key points (4)
  • In Reading, these texts are up to 350 words, with about 2 to 3 questions.
  • You get 1 point for each correct option and lose 1 for each incorrect option, but the score for a question can’t go below 0.
  • There’s a Listening version with the same scoring.
  • Only choose options you can find support for in the text.
03

Fill in the blanks: word choice

Pick the word that fits each gap from a dropdown list. You need grammar, collocation and meaning to all line up.

Key points (4)
  • Reading: Fill in the Blanks (Dropdown) texts are up to 200 words, with about 5 to 6 questions.
  • You get 1 point for each gap you fill correctly, so partial credit is possible.
  • Read the whole sentence before choosing, because the clue is often after the gap.
  • Learn nouns with their prepositions, such as “impact on” and “reason for”.
04

Fill in the blanks: word bank

Drag words from a bank into the gaps in a short text. The bank has more words than gaps, so some options are traps.

Key points (4)
  • Fill in the Blanks (Drag and Drop) texts are up to 80 words, with about 4 to 5 questions.
  • The word bank has more words than there are gaps.
  • You get 1 point for each correctly completed gap.
  • Check that the word fits the grammar (noun, verb, -ing form) as well as the meaning.
05

Reorder paragraph

Put jumbled sentences into a logical order. Pointing words and linking words show you how the sentences connect.

Key points (4)
  • Reorder Paragraph texts are up to 110 words, with about 2 to 3 questions.
  • You score 1 point for each correctly ordered pair of neighbouring sentences.
  • The first sentence usually makes sense on its own, without referring back.
  • A sentence starting “As a result” or “These” needs something before it.
06

Summaries and main ideas

Several tasks test whether you can find the main point: Summarize Written Text, Summarize Spoken Text and Highlight Correct Summary.

Key points (4)
  • Summarize Written Text: read a text of up to 300 words and write a one-sentence summary of 5 to 75 words, in 10 minutes.
  • Summarize Spoken Text: listen for 60 to 90 seconds, then write a summary of 50 to 70 words in 10 minutes.
  • Highlight Correct Summary counts towards both Listening and Reading.
  • Written summaries are scored on content and form, as well as language.
07

Grammar for writing

Grammar is one of the traits scored in your written answers. These are the patterns that come up most in summaries and essays.

Key points (4)
  • Write Essay asks for 200 to 300 words in 20 minutes.
  • Pearson says an essay of less than 120 words, or one on a different topic, gets no score points.
  • Written answers are scored by AI, and Content in tasks like Write Essay also gets a human expert review.
  • Commas alone can’t join two full sentences. Use linking words.

Free practice test

Try 20 PTE-style reading and language questions

The real test has 65 to 75 questions across speaking, writing, reading and listening. Here are 20 in the reading and language styles: multiple choice, fill in the blanks, reorder paragraph and summaries, plus the grammar that’s scored in your writing. They’re our own questions, not Pearson’s, and each text is included in the question. PTE has no pass mark, so we use 70% as a practice target: 14 right hits it. That’s a goal for practice, not a prediction of your score. After each answer you can ask the tutor to explain it another way, and anything you miss comes back at the end.

Question 1 of 20

Urban heat islands form when roads, roofs and car parks absorb sunlight during the day and release it slowly at night. As a result, city centres can stay several degrees warmer than nearby rural areas well after sunset. Street trees help in two ways: their shade keeps surfaces cooler, and water evaporating from their leaves cools the air around them. However, trees need space for their roots and regular watering in their first years, which is why some councils have struggled to increase tree cover in older, densely built suburbs. According to the passage, what problem do some councils face?

Sample of the test: same format, 20 questions.

Test day

What to bring on test day

  • A valid, non-expired passport. Photocopies aren’t accepted, even certified ones.
  • Your name, date of birth, citizenship and gender must exactly match your booking.
  • If your passport is with an immigration office for a visa application, ask for it back before test day.
  • Nothing else goes into the room. You’ll store your belongings in a locker, and the centre gives you a notepad and pencil.

Before you go

  1. Check which test you need: PTE Academic for Australian and New Zealand visas and for university, PTE Academic UKVI for most UK visas, or PTE Core for Canadian immigration.
  2. Check the scores you need, both overall and for each skill, with your university or the visa authority.
  3. If you’re under 18, complete Pearson’s Parental Consent Form before you book.
  4. Try Pearson’s free practice in myPTE so the question types and timing aren’t a surprise.
  5. Arrive at least 30 minutes early. Late arrivals can’t sit the test and lose the fee.
  6. At check-in, staff check your passport, take your photo and signature, and do a palm vein scan.
Pearson PTE: Book PTE AcademicYou book online with a myPTE account. Pick a test centre to see the local price. If you’re applying for an Australian or New Zealand visa, tick the box to share your scores with Home Affairs or Immigration New Zealand.

Study options

Where to study

Start with Pearson’s free practice in myPTE, which includes guided practice tests and a free taste of its AI-scored practice. Then decide whether you need paid mock tests. We’ve compared the official options with the apps, courses and videos people use, with prices checked in October 2026.

OptionPriceFree to useLinks
Official and free
Pearson myPTE free practiceOfficial · webPearson’s own free materials, in the real test format. The practice page mentions four full guided practice tests. It’s the best place to start, because it shows you every question type, including the newer speaking tasks.
Free with a myPTE accountGuided practice tests, sectional tests, video lessons and a study plan
Official PTE Academic AI PracticeOfficial · webThe paid tiers include 15 full mock tests, 20 sectional tests and over 1,000 official questions, with AI scoring and feedback. It’s a one-time payment, not a subscription, charged in US dollars. Each mock test can only be taken once.
Free tier; US$29.99 for 7 days, US$59.99 for 1 month, US$89.99 for 3 monthsTwo diagnostic tests, sample reading and listening questions, and sample AI feedback
PTE Scored Practice TestsOfficial · webA full 2-hour practice test in the real format, scored by the same engine, with a score report by skill. The bundles add AI Practice and, in the bigger ones, the Official Guide eBook. Worth one or two near your test date to check where you are.
US$35.99 per test; bundles from US$59.99 to US$119.99Nothing
PTE Academic Test Taker Handbook and Score GuideOfficial · PDFThe handbook covers booking, ID, test day rules and retakes. The Score Guide shows how many questions of each type to expect and exactly how each is scored. Read the Score Guide before you practise, so you know where points come from.
FreeBoth guides in full
Apps and websites
PTE SuccessApp · iPhoneFrom Pineapple Studio, an Australian company. Covers PTE Academic, PTE Core and UKVI, with mock tests and AI scoring. 4.6 stars from about 4,200 ratings on the Australian App Store.
Free; packages A$18.99 for 1 month, A$44.99 for 3 months, A$84.99 for 6 monthsThe app download and some practice
APEUniApp and websiteA popular practice platform with AI scoring for speaking and writing, plus a large question bank and community. 4.4 stars from about 1,800 ratings on the Australian App Store.
Free; VIP A$24.95 for 30 days, A$49.95 for 90 days, A$115.99 for 180 daysThe app download and some practice questions
Language Academy (LA PTE)App · iPhoneThe app is called PTE Practice & AI Mock Tests on the App Store, with AI-scored mock tests for PTE Academic and PTE Core. 4.8 stars from about 3,000 ratings on the Australian App Store.
Free; Silver A$29 a month, Gold A$89 a month, with 2- and 3-month optionsThe app download and some practice
AlfaPTEApp and websiteFrom Alfa Pty Ltd, an Australian training school. Covers PTE Academic, UKVI and PTE Core, with sectional mock tests. 4.4 stars from about 250 ratings on the Australian App Store.
Free; Premium A$17.99 for 10 days up to A$49.99 for 90 daysPractice questions with AI scoring
E2 Language (E2 PTE)Online courseVideo lessons, live classes, mock tests and AI-marked practice. The higher packages add tutor-marked speaking and writing and one-on-one sessions. Good if you want a structured course with a teacher.
Packages from US$75.90 (90 days) to US$394.90 (365 days)Free trial, a sample live class and free grammar, spelling and pronunciation classes
Video
E2 PTE on YouTubeVideo · YouTubeFree lessons and tips for each PTE question type from E2 Language. Useful for seeing how tasks work before you try them. Check the upload date, as older videos may not cover the newest speaking tasks.
FreeEverything on the channel

Prices and ratings checked October 2026.

FAQ

Common questions

What is the passing score for PTE Academic?

There isn’t one. You get a score from 10 to 90 overall and for each skill, and the organisation you’re applying to sets the minimum. For example, as of October 2026 the Department of Home Affairs counts PTE Academic results from tests taken on or after 7 August 2025 as competent English at 47 in listening, 48 in reading, 51 in writing and 54 in speaking. Universities set their own scores, so check their websites.

How much does the PTE exam cost in Australia?

Pearson sets the price by location and shows it when you choose a test centre. In October 2026, RMIT in Melbourne listed AU$490 and Victoria University listed AU$475, both including GST. Check the price when you book. Rescheduling is free more than 14 days ahead, but cancelling closer to the date costs you some or all of the fee.

How do I book the PTE test?

Create a myPTE account on pearsonpte.com, search for a test centre and date, and pay online. Your details must exactly match your passport. Pearson says you can sometimes book as little as 24 hours ahead, and up to 6 months in advance. If you need the result for an Australian or New Zealand visa, tick the box to share your scores with Home Affairs or Immigration New Zealand.

What’s the difference between PTE Academic, PTE Core and PTE Home?

PTE Academic is for university study and for Australian and New Zealand visas. PTE Academic UKVI is the same test for most UK visas. PTE Core is a general English test for Canadian permanent residence and citizenship. PTE Home is a short speaking and listening test for some UK family and settlement visas. Despite the name, PTE Home is taken at a test centre, not at home.

Can I take PTE Academic online at home?

No. Pearson only offers PTE Academic at its test centres, on a centre computer. You can prepare online, though. Pearson’s myPTE account has free practice, and paid AI-scored mock tests are available too.

How is the PTE score calculated?

Your overall score is based on everything you do in the test. It isn’t an average of your four skill scores. Many questions test two skills at once, such as listening and writing, and they count towards both. Some questions are just right or wrong, others give partial credit, and a few take points off for wrong choices.

All 20 practice questions with answersA printable list of the practice test above
  1. Urban heat islands form when roads, roofs and car parks absorb sunlight during the day and release it slowly at night. As a result, city centres can stay several degrees warmer than nearby rural areas well after sunset. Street trees help in two ways: their shade keeps surfaces cooler, and water evaporating from their leaves cools the air around them. However, trees need space for their roots and regular watering in their first years, which is why some councils have struggled to increase tree cover in older, densely built suburbs. According to the passage, what problem do some councils face?

    Young trees need room and care that crowded older suburbs find hard to provide. The last sentence gives the problem: trees need space for roots and regular watering, so councils have struggled in older, densely built suburbs. The other options either reverse what the text says or add ideas it never mentions.

  2. When the museum digitised its collection of 19th-century letters, staff expected most visitors to the website to be university historians. The usage data told a different story. Over 60 per cent of searches came from people researching their own family history, and many of them had never visited the museum in person. The museum has since added a short guide to reading old handwriting and a form that lets users share information about the people named in the letters. Why did the museum add the handwriting guide and the form?

    Most website users turned out to be family history researchers, not academics. The text says staff expected historians, but the data showed most searches came from family history researchers. The new guide and form were added “since” then, to suit these users.

  3. Sleep researchers have long known that teenagers’ body clocks shift later during puberty, which makes it hard for many of them to fall asleep before about 11 pm. When several schools in one region moved their start time from 8.00 am to 8.45 am, students slept an average of 34 minutes longer on school nights. Attendance in first period rose, although the study found no clear change in end-of-year exam results. Which statement is supported by the passage?

    After the change, more students attended their first class of the day. The passage says “attendance in first period rose”, which means more students came to their first class. The other options contradict the text or add information it doesn’t give.

  4. Supporters of the four-day working week often point to trials in which staff reported less stress and companies kept the same output. These results are encouraging, but they deserve caution. Most trials have been short, lasting six months or less, and the companies taking part chose to join, which suggests they already expected the change to work. Longer studies across a wider range of industries are needed before firm conclusions can be drawn. What is the writer’s attitude to the four-day week trials?

    Positive but cautious, as the results may not apply widely yet The writer calls the results “encouraging” but says they “deserve caution” because trials were short and companies volunteered. That’s positive but careful, and the writer wants more evidence before drawing conclusions.

  5. Desalination plants turn seawater into drinking water by pushing it through very fine membranes that hold back the salt. The process uses a lot of electricity, so newer plants are often paired with wind or solar power. The very salty water left over, called brine, has to be released carefully so that it mixes quickly with the ocean and doesn’t harm sea life near the outlet. Which TWO statements are supported by the passage? A. Desalination needs a large amount of energy. B. Brine is released straight onto beaches. C. Brine can harm marine life if it isn’t released carefully. D. The membranes add salt to make the water safe to drink.

    A and C A matches “the process uses a lot of electricity”. C matches the last sentence, which says brine must be released carefully so it “doesn’t harm sea life”. B and D aren’t in the text, and D gets the membranes backwards.

  6. Citizen science projects invite members of the public to collect or analyse data. In one long-running bird survey, volunteers count the birds in their backyard for 20 minutes and upload the results through an app. Because thousands of people take part each year, scientists can track changes across the whole country that no small research team could measure alone. The organisers admit that some volunteers misidentify species, so unusual sightings are checked by experts before they’re added to the data. Which TWO statements are supported by the passage? A. Volunteers’ counts let researchers see patterns across the country. B. Unusual sightings are reviewed by experts. C. Volunteers must be trained biologists. D. The survey has only been running for one year.

    A and B A matches “scientists can track changes across the whole country”. B matches “unusual sightings are checked by experts”. C and D aren’t supported: volunteers are members of the public, and the survey is “long-running”.

  7. Choose the word that best fills the gap. The new funding rules had a significant ______ on the number of students applying for scholarships.

    impact “Have an impact on” is a fixed phrase meaning to change or influence something. The sentence needs a noun after “a significant”, and only “impact” fits with “on”.

  8. Choose the word that best fills the gap. The findings ______ the view that reading with children at home helps their later success at school.

    support “Support the view” means to give evidence for an idea. It takes a direct object, so it fits straight before “the view”. The other verbs all need a preposition first.

  9. Choose the word that best fills the gap. Many universities now ______ students to submit their assignments online rather than on paper.

    require “Require someone to do something” is correct and natural. The other verbs don’t use the pattern “verb + person + to + verb”.

  10. Choose the word that best fills the gap. The new medicine reduced symptoms in most patients. ______, a small number had serious side effects, so the trial was paused.

    However The second sentence contrasts with the first: most patients improved, but some had serious side effects. “However” is the linking word for contrast.

  11. Choose the pair of words from the word bank that best fills gaps (1) and (2). Coral reefs cover less than one per cent of the ocean floor, yet they (1) ______ about a quarter of all marine species. When sea temperatures rise too high, corals (2) ______ the tiny algae that give them their colour and much of their food, and the reef turns white.

    (1) support (2) expel Reefs “support” many species by giving them food and shelter. When corals “expel” (push out) the algae, they lose their colour, which explains why the reef turns white. No other pair makes sense for both gaps.

  12. Choose the word from the word bank that best fills the gap. The lecturer reminded students to ______ all their sources, because using someone else’s work without credit counts as plagiarism.

    acknowledge To “acknowledge” a source means to show that you used it, which is exactly what avoids plagiarism. It takes a direct object, so it fits before “all their sources”.

  13. Choose the word from the word bank that best fills the gap. Despite ______ the experiment several times, the team couldn’t reproduce the original results.

    repeating “Despite” is a preposition, so it’s followed by a noun or an -ing form. “Despite repeating the experiment” is correct.

  14. Put these sentences in the correct order to make a paragraph. A. As a result, the town’s population fell by almost half within ten years. B. In the 1950s, the town grew quickly around a large copper mine. C. Today, tourism has replaced mining as the main source of jobs. D. When copper prices collapsed in the 1970s, the mine closed.

    B, D, A, C B introduces the town and the mine, so it starts. D explains the mine closing. A begins “As a result”, so it must follow the closure. C, starting “Today”, brings the story to the present and ends it.

  15. Put these sentences in the correct order to make a paragraph. A. These cells then spread across the wound, closing the gap. B. When the skin is cut, blood vessels near the injury narrow to reduce bleeding. C. Next, a clot forms, creating a temporary barrier against bacteria. D. Over the following days, new skin cells begin to grow underneath the clot.

    B, C, D, A B starts the process with the cut. C begins “Next” and adds the clot. D mentions “the clot” and introduces new skin cells. A refers to “these cells”, so it must come after D.

  16. Many people assume that recycling plastic always helps the environment. In practice, only some types of plastic can be recycled at a reasonable cost, and mixed or dirty plastic often ends up in landfill even after it has been sorted. Some researchers therefore argue that using less plastic in the first place, for example by switching to refillable containers, would do more good than raising recycling rates alone. Which sentence best summarises the passage?

    Because much plastic can’t be recycled cheaply, using less of it may help more than recycling alone. The passage moves from a common belief, to the limits of recycling, to the argument for using less plastic. Only this option covers both the problem and the researchers’ conclusion.

  17. Small-scale farmers in many countries now use mobile phones to get information that was once hard to reach. Text message services send weather forecasts, crop prices and pest warnings directly to farmers. Studies suggest that farmers who receive price information can bargain better with traders, although the benefit depends on whether they can reach more than one market. Which sentence best summarises the passage?

    Phone information services can help small farmers, especially with prices, but the gains depend on access to markets. This option includes the main idea (phones give farmers useful information), the key benefit (better bargaining on prices) and the limit (it depends on market access). The others exaggerate or contradict the text.

  18. Which sentence is grammatically correct?

    The number of international students has increased every year since 2015. The subject is “the number”, which is singular, so the verb is “has”. “Since 2015” describes a period up to now, so the present perfect “has increased” is right.

  19. Choose the option that correctly completes the sentence. If governments ______ more in public transport, traffic congestion would fall.

    invested This is a second conditional: a possible situation, then “would” in the result. The “if” part uses the past simple, “invested”.

  20. In Summarize Written Text you must write your summary as one sentence. Which option is a single, grammatically complete sentence?

    Although recycling helps, using less plastic may have a greater effect because many plastics can’t be recycled cheaply. This option has one main clause (“using less plastic may have a greater effect”) joined to two linked clauses with “although” and “because”. It’s one complete sentence.