United Kingdom · Registration assessment
Trainee pharmacists sit one assessment before they can register anywhere in the UK: the Common Registration Assessment (CRA). The General Pharmaceutical Council (GPhC) and the Pharmaceutical Society Northern Ireland deliver it together, at test centres across the UK, and passing it is one of the criteria for registering as a pharmacist. The GPhC exam has two computer-based parts: calculations first, then questions on the safe and effective pharmacy care of the public.
Key facts
How it works
Topics
These areas come from the GPhC’s framework for 2026 sittings, which it says all assessment content is drawn from.
Part 1 tests the calculations you’d meet in practice. Each one takes more than one step, and the answer has to be practical and realistic.
Part 2’s clinical questions span fifteen therapeutic areas aligned with the British National Formulary (BNF) and the BNF for Children.
Either part may include questions on twelve high-risk drug classes, picked for their risk of medication errors or serious harm.
Law runs through both parts. It’s built into calculation and clinical questions, and tested directly in scenarios on medicines supply, patient safety and ethical practice.
You apply through myGPhC for a sitting you’re eligible for, then sit both parts on one day at the test centre you’re allocated.
Free practice test
These 20 questions are our own, on calculations, medicines and UK pharmacy law. They aren’t GPhC questions. Get 15 right (75%) to reach our practice target. That’s our number, not the GPhC’s.
20 practice questions we wrote ourselves, on pharmacy topics.
Test day
Study options
The GPhC publishes the assessment framework, example questions for both parts and the Board of Assessors’ insights from the June 2026 sitting. The study options page explains each one and lays out a study path.
| Option | Price | Free to use | Links |
|---|---|---|---|
| Official sources | |||
GPhC: assessment framework for 2026 sittingsOfficial framework, PDFWhat the assessment may test: its domains and content areas, the clinical areas, the high-risk drug classes, the calculation types and the question formats. | Free | The whole document | |
GPhC: key insights from the June 2026 assessmentBoard of Assessors feedback, PDFAreas of Part 1 and Part 2 where the June 2026 cohort’s performance suggested more development was needed. | Free | The whole document | |
GPhC: regulations for 2026 sittingsOfficial rules, PDFThe rules on eligibility, attempts, conduct on the day, withdrawal, nullification, results and appeals. | Free | The whole document | |
Prices and ratings checked November 2026.
FAQ
There isn’t a fixed one. Each sitting has different questions, so the pass mark for each part can vary between sittings, while the standard you need to reach stays the same. The results page explains how it’s set.
Up to three times, within the time limit you have to apply for registration. A sitting you withdraw from before you start Part 1 doesn’t count as an attempt, though the application fee isn’t refunded. The results page covers retakes and appeals.
You need approved foundation trainee pharmacist status, and your training must have started in your statutory education body’s window for that sitting. The foundation training page lists the windows.
The June 2027 sitting is on Tuesday 15 June 2027. The GPhC said it would give the application dates closer to the time, on its sitting page, and the results page has the results day.
Yes. It’s one common assessment for all four nations. Trainees in Northern Ireland apply to the Pharmaceutical Society Northern Ireland to sit it, and they need at least 39 weeks of training by the time of the assessment.
A 5 mL ampoule contains lidocaine hydrochloride 2% w/v. How many milligrams of lidocaine hydrochloride does it hold?
100 mg A % w/v strength means grams in 100 mL, so 2% w/v is 2 g in 100 mL, or 20 mg in each millilitre. Five millilitres hold 5 × 20 mg = 100 mg.
A 58-year-old with type 2 diabetes and hypertension stops ramipril because of a persistent dry cough. Which is the most appropriate replacement?
Losartan A dry cough is a known side effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors such as ramipril. When an ACE inhibitor isn’t tolerated, National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance is to offer an angiotensin II receptor blocker such as losartan, which acts on the same system without the same cough risk.
A patient is prescribed oral methotrexate for rheumatoid arthritis. How often is the dose taken?
Once a week For rheumatoid arthritis, oral methotrexate is taken once a week, on the same day each week. Taking it daily by mistake has caused serious and fatal toxicity, which is why it’s treated as a high-risk medicine and the weekly day is made clear to the patient.
A patient arrives at the emergency department after taking a large overdose of paracetamol. Which is the specific antidote?
Acetylcysteine Acetylcysteine replenishes glutathione, which the liver uses to make paracetamol’s toxic metabolite harmless. Given early enough after the overdose, it protects against liver damage.
Under the Misuse of Drugs Regulations 2001, which schedule is temazepam in?
Schedule 3 Temazepam is a Schedule 3 controlled drug. It’s also one of the Schedule 3 drugs that must be kept under safe custody, in the controlled drugs cabinet.
A medicine is to run by continuous infusion at 2 mg an hour. The syringe holds 50 mg in 20 mL. What rate do you set?
0.8 mL/hour The concentration is 50 mg ÷ 20 mL = 2.5 mg/mL. To give 2 mg an hour, run 2 ÷ 2.5 = 0.8 mL/hour.
Which of these inhaled drugs is a short-acting beta2 agonist?
Salbutamol Salbutamol is a short-acting beta2 agonist: it relaxes the airway muscle within minutes, and its effect lasts a few hours. That’s why it’s used to relieve symptoms rather than as a regular preventer.
Which antiepileptic carries the highest known risk of harm to an unborn baby, including birth defects and developmental problems?
Valproate Valproate taken in pregnancy carries a high risk of birth defects and of developmental disorders in the child. That’s why the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has strict safety measures for it, including a pregnancy prevention programme, for anyone who could become pregnant.
A child weighing 18 kg is prescribed a medicine at 15 mg/kg per dose. The oral suspension contains 250 mg in 5 mL. What volume is each dose?
5.4 mL The dose is 15 mg × 18 kg = 270 mg. The suspension holds 250 mg in 5 mL, which is 50 mg/mL, so 270 mg is 270 ÷ 50 = 5.4 mL.
Which of these antibiotics needs its blood levels monitored because of its narrow therapeutic index?
Gentamicin Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside with a narrow gap between an effective and a toxic level, and high levels can damage the kidneys and hearing. Its dosing is adjusted using measured blood levels and kidney function.
A patient has a history of anaphylaxis to penicillin. Which of these antibiotics must be avoided?
Co-amoxiclav Co-amoxiclav contains amoxicillin, a penicillin, so it can cause the same allergic reaction. After penicillin anaphylaxis, all penicillins are avoided, including combination products whose names don’t say penicillin.
A prescription reads: one tablet twice a day for 7 days, then one tablet once a day for 14 days. How many tablets do you supply?
28 The first part is 1 tablet × 2 a day × 7 days = 14 tablets. The second is 1 × 1 × 14 = 14 tablets, so the total is 28.
A patient with type 2 diabetes has vomiting and diarrhoea and can’t keep fluids down. Which of these medicines is it most appropriate to stop until they’re eating and drinking normally?
Metformin Metformin is one of the medicines paused during a dehydrating illness, because dehydration can harm the kidneys and raise the risk of lactic acidosis. It’s restarted once the patient is eating and drinking normally.
In a 5-year trial, 10% of patients on placebo and 6% of patients on a treatment had a stroke. What is the number needed to treat (NNT) to prevent one stroke over 5 years?
25 The absolute risk reduction is 10% minus 6%, which is 4%, or 0.04. The NNT is 1 ÷ 0.04 = 25, so 25 patients need treating for 5 years to prevent one stroke.
A patient taking regular morphine for pain has constipation. Which laxative should be avoided?
Ispaghula husk British National Formulary (BNF) advice is to avoid bulk-forming laxatives such as ispaghula husk in opioid-induced constipation. It recommends an osmotic laxative, or docusate sodium to soften the stools, together with a stimulant laxative.
For how long after the appropriate date is a prescription for a Schedule 2 controlled drug valid?
28 days Prescriptions for Schedule 2, 3 and 4 controlled drugs are valid for 28 days from the appropriate date: the date it was signed, or a later start date the prescriber gives. After that, it can’t be dispensed.
A patient stable on lithium asks to buy ibuprofen for back pain. What is the main concern?
Ibuprofen can raise the lithium level Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen reduce how much lithium the kidneys clear, so lithium levels can rise into the toxic range. The pharmacist should advise against it and suggest an alternative such as paracetamol.
A woman who uses a combined oral contraceptive is starting a course of rifampicin. What is the main concern?
The pill may stop working reliably Rifampicin is a strong enzyme inducer, so it speeds up the breakdown of the hormones in the combined pill and can make it fail. She needs a different or extra method of contraception during the course and for a time afterwards.
A patient asks for an emergency supply without a prescription. Under the Human Medicines Regulations 2012, which of these can’t the pharmacist supply this way?
Morphine sulfate tablets An emergency supply at a patient’s request can’t include controlled drugs in Schedules 1, 2 or 3, apart from phenobarbital for epilepsy. Morphine sulfate tablets are a Schedule 2 controlled drug, so they can’t be supplied this way.
Which counselling point is right for a patient starting weekly alendronic acid 70 mg tablets?
Stay upright for 30 minutes Alendronic acid is taken on an empty stomach, swallowed whole with plenty of water at least 30 minutes before breakfast. The patient stays sitting or standing upright for at least 30 minutes, to lower the risk of irritation and damage to the oesophagus.
Rules and fees can change, so check the official site before your test.